1. In the preface to the second
edition of "Critique of Pure Reason" (page B xvi) Kant says:
"Thus far it has been assumed that all our cognition must conform to
objects. On that presupposition, however, all our attempts to establish something
about them a priori, by means of concepts through which our cognition would be
expanded, have come to nothing. Let us, therefore, try to find out by
experiment whether we shall not make better progress in the problems of
metaphysics if we assume that objects must conform to our cognition." How
are we to understand this?
Kant talks about a priori knowledge and a posteriori knowledge. A
priori knowledge is said to be obtained through theories, more rational and
called "the secure path of science". It is determining the object and
its concept, which is theoretical, but also making the object actual and
therefore a more practical perspective of it. A posteriori knowledge is
based on experience with the object and obtained through empiricism, where
already existing objects determine human cognition. According to Kant objects
have to conform to our cognition, which is demonstrated in a priori knowledge,
which is independent from experience.
As an example Kant talks about the Copernicus Theoreme where the
common belief in celestial bodies traveling around the earth has been
proved wrong by the fact, that the earth is moving around the sun. Although
previous knowledge said that the sun is moving around the earth Copernicus
refuted it by not limiting himself to previous knowledge,"thinking out of
his box", and assuming the contrary that the galaxy is conforming to his
cognition.
In my opinion it is important to combine both a priori knowledge and a posteriori
knowledge and the relation between cognition and objects. Copernicus
success with his a priori approach, conforming to his cognition, can be
dedicated to his a posteriori knowledge, the knowledge he already had about the
subject.
2. At the end of the discussion of
the definition "Knowledge is perception", Socrates argues that we do
not see and hear "with" the eyes and the ears, but
"through" the eyes and the ears. How are we to understand this? And in
what way is it correct to say that Socrates argument is directed towards what
we in modern terms call "empiricism"?
Everybody perceives and experiences things in a different way,
therefore things appear to each one different. Socrates talks about knowledge
as a matter of perception and focuses on questioning the core concept of
knowledge. That leads to the discussion of what the definition of
knowledge is. Seeing and hearing "through" eyes and ears and not
"with" means, that going with the preposition "with" we
would only receive information. Our brain receives information that we see and
hear "with" our eyes and ears. But the use of the word
"through" says that we do not only receive information, but we experience and perceive the
information captured through our eyes and ears. Knowledge is mostly what
somebody has said once, so criticizing and questioning previous knowledge,
studies and research has become more important. Everything can be seen in
different perspectives and depending on the perspective there are different
interpretations of different subjects.
Empiricism says that knowledge comes only and primarily from sensory
experience, what differs from Kant's way of defining knowledge. Plato says that
knowledge is created from many factors.
Nowadays empirical methods are based on Kant's theory of a priori
knowledge and a posteriori knowledge. Forming a hypotheses using a priori
assumptions created with our mind and verifying the hypotheses with the use of
empirical research methods, using a posteriori cognition as starting basis, to
measure experience and perception shows that there is no a posteriori knowledge
without a priori knowledge and also the other way round. For creating knowledge
we need to question
existing knowledge, stop thinking too binary and start thinking outside our
previous knowledge.
However it is important to keep both theories of Kant and Plato in
mind, because both have a strong influence on todays creating of
knowledge.
I think it's great that you use "postpriori" to explain "a priori", it makes it really clear. Although, I think that the way you refer to "previous knowledge" in the first question might be a bit misguiding, since what Copernicus had as "previous knowledge" actually was what Kant refers to as "Pure Reason" and thus not really "knowledge" in this context.
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